Sylabus

Winter semester

1. patient history, general neurological examination, cranial nerves, patients

2. examination of extremities, posture, gait, central and peripheral paresis, syndromes of different types of paresis, patients

3., examination of sensitivity, cerebellum, cortical funtions,patients

4. extrapyramidal syndromes, vestibular syndromes, creation medical report

    individual examination of patients

5. evaluation of student´s work –  patient examination

 

Summer semester

1. Neuroradiology, patient examination

2. Electromyography, cerebrospinal fluid 

3. Evoked potentials, elekctroencephalography

4. Examination of patients 

5. Evaluation of student´s work –  patient examination

Semestral evaluation and final examination

Conditions for semestral evaluation and final examination in Neurology – General Medicine:

 

1./ The conditions for semestral evaluation (SE) = evaluation of subject (ES) in the winter semester comprises, except of an active attendance at all classes and delivering the medical record of a patient, also successful passing of a written examination from the general neurology topics at the end of the winter semester (minimum 35 correct answers out of 50 questions = 70 %). In the winter examination period (7.1.2014 - 14.2.2014) a student may enlist in, as well as cancel the enlistment, no later than 3 working days before the given term of the written test (in AIS). The written test is performed from 8:30 to 9:30 a.m. (in the auditorium). The examiner will record the result of a successfully passed semestral evaluation in the Index (at 11:00 a.m.) The written test for the semestral evaluation may be performed three times at most (one regular and two reparative dates).

 

It is not possible to transfer the written test for the winter semestral evaluation into the summer examination period. A successful winter semestral evaluation (A – E) is a condition for the study continuation in the summer semester.  

 

2./       An active attendance at all classes in the summer semester, including an individual patient examination and delivering the medical record of a patient on the last practical with a semestral evaluation A - E.  In case the student is not successful at the final evaluation of the practical skills, he (she) will repeat the patient examination with delivering of the medical record in the credit week at the latest.

 

The examination in the subject neurology consists of written and oral forms.

 

A./ Written part of the examination: altogether 100 multiple-choice questions from general and special neurology. A successful accomplishment of the test requires minimum 70 correct answers.You have 90 minutes for finishing the test. The written test is an integral part of the examination, even in the case of successful passing of the test in the regular and reparative terms, respectively. The written test is performed on the first day of the examination from 8:30 to 10:00 a.m. – on the date for which the student is properly enrolled under the terms of Study Regulations. If a student fails to meet the test criteria for success will be assessed by the degree of Fx (in AIS).

 

B./  Oral part of the examination: consists of a response to 2 questions chosen by a lot, and an assessment of the radiographs (CT, MR).  Oral examination begins the next working day after the written examination from 8:30 a.m. (second day of the examination). In case the student either misses the examination or fails to achieve successful test criteria (60 correct answers), he (she) will receive the classification grade Fx. The student who fails to attend the training in either winter or summer semester (all classes), fails to deliver two patient medical records and fails to fulfil the general neurology testing criteria (semestral evaluation A - E for the winter semester), may not be admitted to the examination in the subject neurology. The institute/department cannot register for an examination the student who did not attend the classes. Study regulations, Article 23 (12).

 

C./  Written test evaluation:

 

A - excellent (outstanding results) (numeric value 1) = 95 - 100 %

B - very good (above average results) (1.5) = 89 - 94 %         

C - good (average results) (2) = 83 - 88 %        

D - satisfactory (acceptable results) (2.5) = 77 - 82 %   

E - sufficient (results meet minimum criteria) (3) = 70 - 76 %    

Fx – fail (some more work is required) (4) = less than 69 %

 

     Evaluation subjects to the study program completed by an examination - is executed by written testing as a mandatory part of each examination. Test is evaluated as successfully completed when the student reaches at least 70 % correct answers. If student reaches 69 % or less correct answers is rated grade "Fx" and test must repeat.  

When the subject is re-enrolled (transfer subject), or repeating a course - a student has the right to re- take the examination only once under the same conditions (only a regular examination and 1st re-examination). If such student don´t reach 70 % correct answers in the written test in his last term (1st re-examination), he can perform an oral examination.

 

Enlisting in the examination:

 

     According to the Study regulations a student can enlist or cancel the enlistment in the neurology examination no later than three working days before the date of examination. The date of the examination that the student enlisted in is obligatory for both parties. Study regulations, Article 23 (21).

 

Re-examinations:

 

 

     A student with a subject evaluation Fx has a right for two re-examinations. Neurology examination and written test for the winter semestral evaluation may be taken three times at most. It is differentiated: regular examination, 1st re-examination and 2nd re-examination. When repeating a course/subject a student has only a regular examination and 1st re-examination. Study regulations, Article 23 (3). When the subject is re-enrolled, a student has the right to re-take the examination only once under the same conditions. Study regulations, Article 24 (4).

Written test

Final examination - written test in neurology 

 

 

 

The written test will comprise a selection of 100 questions from both the first semester schoolwork (neurological propedeutics) and the second semester schoolwork (special neurology). Four answers will be provided, whereas there are 4 possibilities - all four answers are correct; none of the answers is correct; or some of the answers are correct (multiple choice test).

 

The oral exam will be permitted provided the following requisitions are fulfilled: semester evaluation A - E from the winter semester; active participation at the practical training in the summer semester with evaluation by the teacher in charge and examination of the patient; and a successful fulfillment of the basic test criteria (70 %).

 

Written test evaluation:

 

A - excellent (outstanding results) (numeric value 1) = 95 - 100 %

B - very good (above average results) (1.5) = 89 - 94 %         

C - good (average results) (2) = 83 - 88 %        

D - satisfactory (acceptable results) (2.5) = 77 - 82 %   

E - sufficient (results meet minimum criteria) (3) = 70 - 76 %    

Fx – fail (some more work is required) (4) less than 69 %

 

 

 

Multiple choice tests questions - neurological propedeutics

 

1. Language areas in the brain do not include 

2. What is of anatomical relevance for consciousness 

3. What is anatomically irrelevant for consciousness 

4. Anisocoric pupils are a sign of

5. Miotic pupils are a sign of 

6. Efferent part of the gag reflex are formed by motor fibers of :

7. Sensory fibers of the glossopharyngeal nerve innervate:

8. Motor fibers of the glossopharyngeal nerve innervate:

9. Secretory (vegetative) fibers of the glossopharyngeal nerve innervate:

10. Glossopharyngeal, vagal and accessory nerves leave the cranium through:

11. Motor innervation of the vocal cord muscles are innervated by:

12. Motor innervation of the accessory nerve:

13. Motor innervation of the hypoglossus nerve:

14. The following cranial nerves belong to the cranial part of parasympaticus: 

15. Which of the gustatory sense tract is true:

16. Nucleus ambiguus is a motor nucleus of the following cranial nerves:

17. Hemiglossoplegia is caused by:

18.  Pseudobulbar paralysis is caused by:

19. Where is the origin of the upper motor neuron (main effector part):

20. Where is the terminal part (synapse) of the lower motor neuron:

21. What is the localization of motor nuclei of the VII. cranial nerve

22. Sensitive and sensory fibres of the VII. cranial nerve:  

23. Chorda tympani contains the fibers for:

24. Stapedius muscle:

25. Upper facial muscles (frontal and orbicularis oculi muscles):

26. Corneal reflex:

27.  The extrapyramidal system contains

28. Visual center in the brainstem:

29. Nucleus of oculomotor nerve (localization):

30. Nucleus of abducen nerve (localization):

31. Nucleus of trigeminal nerve:

32. Vestibular nuclei:

33. Bulbar nuclei:

34. Hypothalamus:

35. Thalamus:

36. Mesencephalon:

37. Substantia nigra:

38. Pons Varoli:

39. Medulla oblongata:

40. Hypothalamus:

41. The major neurotransmitter secreted in substantia nigra is:

42. Within the spinal cord, fibers carrying proprioception are located in the:

43. What is an intrafusal fiber:

44. The following statements about the motor end plate (neuromuscular junction) are true:

45. Which of statements about fasciculations are true:

46. Which of the following elements are not parts of the myotactic (stretch) reflex circuit:

47. Which of the following are characteristic types of nerve fibers:

48. Which of the following cranial nerves carries parasympathetic fibres:

49. The Edinger-Westphall nucleus is a component of nerve nucleus:

50. Musculocutaneus nerve innervates the following muscles:

51. Which of statements about a motor unit is true:

52. Olfactory nerve:

53. Optic nerve:

54. Oculomotor nerve:

55. Oculomotor nerve innervates:

56. Trochlear nerve innervates:

57. Trochlear nerve:

58. Trigeminal nerve innervates (motor fibers):

59. Which of the following is not innervated by the trigeminal nerve:

60. Trigeminal nerve:

61. The peripheral branches of the trigeminal nerve are:

62. Abducens nerve:

63. Abducens nerve innervates:

64. Which of the following cranial nerves does not contain sensitive and sensory fibres:

65. At physiological conditions, which of these belongs to extra-cranial cerebral arteries:

66. The right carotid communis artery branches from:

67. The left carotid communis artery branches from:

68. The internal carotid begins:

69. The external carotid artery has two branches:

70. The vertebral artery branches:

71. The most common anatomic variation of the vertebral artery is:

72. Which of these belong to the branches of internal carotid artery:

73. The vertebral artery has the following branches:

74. The basilar artery has the following branches:

75. The Circle of Willis:

76. Formation of the collateral circulation depends on:

77. Possible types of a collateral circulation:

78. Intracranial venous system:

79. Which of these belong to the upper brain sinuses:

80. Which of these belong to the lower brain sinuses:

81. Which from these diverts blood from the brain directly:

82. For the meninges the following applies:

83. For dura mater the following applies:

84. For the pia mater the following applies:

85. For arachnoidea the following applies:

86. For the ventricles of the brain the following applies:

87. CSF between the third and the fourth cerebral ventricles flows through:

88. To the compartments filling the intracranial space in physiological conditions belong:

89. Which of the following belongs to the basal ganglia:

90. Which of the following statements about the basal ganglia is correct?

91. Which statement about the substantia nigra is correct?

92. Direct motor circuit of the basal ganglia pass through the following structures:

93. Indirect motor circuit of the basal ganglia passes through the following structures:

94. Which statement about the cerebellum is correct?

95. Which statement about the cerebellum is correct?

96. Which statement about the cerebellum is correct?

97. Which statement about the cerebellar nuclei is correct?

98. Which statement about the cerebellar cortex is correct?

99. Which statement about the cerebellar function is correct?

100. Which statement about the cerebellum is correct?

101. Which statement about the cerebellar cortex is correct?

102. Which statement about the cerebellum is correct?

103. Papez circuit – a basic circuit of memory coding - pass through the following structures: 

104. Which statement about the hippocampal formation is correct?

105. What are the symptoms of cerebellar ataxia?

106. Which symptoms may occur in a cerebellar lesion?

107. Cerebellar tremor is typically:

108. What are the cardinal cerebellar symptoms?

109. Which of the following nuclei is a part of cerebellum?

110. Which of the following anatomic structures is a part of cerebellum?

111. What cells are typical for the cerebellum?

112. What fibers are typical for the cerebellum?

113. What are the types of cerebellar division?

114. Which of the following statement is true for cerebellum?

115. Which is a true statement for the paleocerebellum?

116. Which is true for the neocerebellum:

117. Which is true for the archicerebellum:

118. Which is true for the neocerebellar syndrome:

119. Which is true for the paleocerebellar syndrome?

120. Bruns-Stewart nystagm is:

121. Which of the following statements about the cerebellum is true:

122. Which of following statements is true for a cerebellar ataxia:

123. In hypermetria:

124. Which of the following statements is true for the cerebellar stance:

125. During the finger-to-nose testing we may detect on the side of a cerebellar lesion:

126. During the heel-to-knee testing we may detect on the side of a cerebellar lesion:

127. Which of the following gait impairments is characteristic for the paleocerebellar syndrome:

128. Which of the following symptoms may occur in a cerebellar lesion:

129. What do we find by examination of the motor system (mark all suitable alternatives)?

130. Upper motor neuron – anatomy:

131. Where does the pyramidal tract cross (cortico - spinal tract): 

132. Lower motor neuron – anatomy:

133. Neuromuscular junction:

134. Ruffini corpuscules serve as the receptors for sensitivity:

135. Receptors of deep sensation belong to:

136. To the proprioreceptors belong:

137. Tract for pain sensitivity runs through:

138. Tract for deep sensation runs through:

139. The spinothalamic tract serves to:

140. The fasciculus gracilis Golli serves for sensation:

141. To the functions of vestibular system do not belong:

142. Nucleus of oculomotor nerve is located in:

143. Oculomotor nerve:

144. Optic nerve:

145. Trigeminal nerve: 

146. The physio-anatomical structures of the basal ganglia include: 

147. These physio-anatomical structures are not the components of extrapyramidal system:

148. The extrapyramidal system plays a major role in:

149. Facial nerve: 

150. Vagal nerve: 

151. Hypoglossal nerve:

152. Glossopharyngeal nerve: 

153. Accessory nerve: 

154. Olfactory nerve:

155. The following statements, concerning the neuron, are correct:

156. The following statements, concerning the neuron, are correct:

157. The following statements, concerning the axon, are correct:

158. The following statements, concerning a nerve impulse, are correct:

159. The following statements, concerning the structure of a synapse, are correct:

160. The following statements, concerning a neuron, are correct: 

161. The following statements, concerning the neuron organelles and inclusions, are correct:

162. The following statements, concerning the dendrites, are correct:

163. The following statements, concerning the neuromodulators, are correct:

164. The following statements, concerning the neurobiology of neuron structures, are correct:

165. The following statements, concerning the neuroglia, are correct:

166. The following statements, concerning the microglial cells, are correct:

167. The following statements, concerning the ependymal cells, are correct:

168. The following statements, concerning the extracellular space, are correct:

169. The following statements, concerning neuroglial cells, are correct:

170. The following  general statements, concerning the neuroglial cells, are correct:

171. The following statements, concerning the nerves, are correct:

172. The following  statements, concerning the nerves, are correct:

173. The following statements, concerning an oligodendrocyte, are correct:

174. The following statements, concerning the spinal nerves, are correct:

175. The following statements, concerning the peripheral nerve plexuses, are correct:

176. The statements, concerning the nerve conduction, are correct:

177. The following statements, concerning the propagation of a nerve impulse, are correct:

178. The following statements, concerning the Wallerian degeneration, are correct:

179. The following statements, concerning the failure of nerve regeneration, are correct:

180. The following factor may explain the partial return of function following injury to the spinal cord:

181. The following statements, concerning the receptor ending, are correct:   

182. The following statements, concerning the receptor endings, are correct:

183. The following statements, concerning cutaneous receptors, are correct:

184. The following statements, concern the function of the neuromuscular spindle, are correct:

185. The following statements, concerning the neurotendinous spindles, are correct:

186. The following statements, concerning the neuromuscular junction in skeletal muscle, are correct:

187. The following statements, concerning the neuromuscular junctions on smooth and cardiac muscles, are correct:

188. The following statements, concerning skin sensations and dermatomes, are correct:

189. The following statements, concerning the muscle reflexes, are correct:

190. The following statements, concerning the dermatomes of the trunk and lower limbs, are correct:

191. The following statements, concerning the muscle innervations, are correct:

192. The following statements, concerning the skeletal muscle action, are correct:

193. The following statements, concerning the posture, are correct:

194. Disorders of the consciousness do not include

195. The following is not a cause of the unconsciousness 

196. The following is not a cause of the unconsciousness

197. Qualitative disorders of the consciousness include

198. The following is not a disorder of consciousness Disorder of consciousness is not 

199. Conjugated deviation of eye bulbs to one side is not a sign of

200. Disconjugation of eye bulbs is a sign of

201. Aphasia is a disorder of

202. Aphasia is not a disorder of

203. The following belong to the disorders of speech and language 

204. Which is not tzpical for aphasia 

205.  Aphasia may become manifest with

206. Aphasia may mimic

207. Aphasia is usually associated with

208.  Aphasia is usually not associated with

209. Wernicke (sensory) aphasia is mainly impairment of

210. Broca (motor) aphasia is mainly impairment of

211. Aphasia may mimic

212. Aphasia cannot be a symptom of

213. Unilateral lesion of the glossopharyngeal  nerve is characterized by: 

214. Unilateral lesion of thevagal nerve is characterized by:

215. Unilateral lesion of the accessory nerve is characterized by: 

216. Torticollis:

217. Hemoglossoplagia caused by unilateral lesion of the hypoglossus nerve is characterized by:

218. Bulbar paralysis is caused by:

219. Typical features of the bulbar paralysis are:

220. Typical features of the pseudobulbar paralysis are:

221. The cause of a pseudobulbar paralysis is:

222. Disorders of posture and gait are the outcome of lesion of the following systems:

223. Chvostek sign is positive in the following disease (syndromes):

224. Peripheral lesion of the VII.cranial nerve above the level of chorda tympani junction and above the fibres to stapedius nerve:

225. Central quadriparesis:

226. Lesion in the left (dominant) hemisphere can cause the following syndromes:

227. The signs of a central lesion (upper motor neuron) are usually:

228. The signs of a peripheral lesion (lower motor neuron) is usually:

229.  Central paraparesis:

230. Muscle rigidity:

231. Muscle spasticity

232. Central hemiparesis:

233. Bell´s palsy:

234. Thalamus:

235. Substantia nigra:

236. Mesencephalon:

237. Pons Varoli:

238. Vestibular system:

239. Vestibular nystagmus:

240. Vestibular syndrome:

241. Medulla oblongata:

242. Bulbar syndrome:

243. Which of following signs are not present in a cerebellar syndrome:

244. The clinical features of the Broca aphasia are:

245. The clinical features of the Wernicke aphasia are:

246. Hyperkinetic movement disorders are:

247. Brainstem vascular syndromes are:

248. Signs and symptoms of the Wallenberg syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome) are:

249. Muscular atrophy with fasciculations is typical in:

250. Characteristic signs and symptoms of neuropathic pain are:

251. The signs and symptoms of Brown-Séquard syndrome (cord hemi section) below the lesion are:

252. Complete transsection of the spinal cord at the level of Th1 would most likely result in:

253. Which of the following signs and symptoms is not a manifestation of the autonomic dysfunction:

254. Which of the following belongs to a group of focal dystonias:

255. Parinaud’s syndrome is a sign of injury to:

256. Hyperosmia:

257. “Gyrus uncinatus” (uncinate) crisis is:

258. One-sided anosmia is a sign of damage to:

259. The clinical picture of the right optical tract lesion is::

260.  Ptosis, miosis and enophtalmus are signs of injury to:

261. Conjugate deviation of eyes to the left side is a sign of:

262. The clinical picture of Claude-Bernard-Horner´s syndrome includes:

263. Argyll-Robertson symptom:

264. The clinical picture of a lesion to the medial fibers of optic chiasma is:

265. The clinical picture of one-sided optic tract lesion is:

266. Function of which cranial nerve is most often damaged in case of the increased intracranial pressure: 

267. Which of these is a part of internal carotid artery syndrome:

268. Which of these is a part of  medial cerebral artery syndrome:

269. Which of these is a part of  anterior cerebral artery syndrome:

270. Which of these is a part of posterior cerebral artry  syndrome:

271. Which of these is a part of basilar artery syndrome:

272. Subclavian steal syndrome

273. Anterior spinal artery syndrome includes:

274. Intracranial blood vessel anomalies might be:

275. Which from these occurs when an intracranial aneurysm ruptures:

276. Which from these occurs in thrombosis of the sinus transversus:

277. Which from these occurs in thrombosis of the sinus cavernosus:

278. Which from these occurs in thrombosis of sinus sagitalis superior:

279. Which of these could occur in Wallenberg syndrome:

280. Increase in the intracranial pressure in adult humans can be caused by:

281. Partial Reserve Space ("buffer system"), which may be applied as a compensatory mechanism during increase of the intracranial pressure in  ADULTS is:

282. Supply of oxygenated blood to the brain tissue depends on the so-called perfusion pressure that:

283. The symptoms of intracranial hypertension is / are:

284. During compensated intracranial hypertension:

285. The following applies for decompensation of intracranial hypertension in an adult :

286. The following applies for headache in intracranialhypertension   syndrome:

287. The following applies for  the occipital cone :

288. The following applies for  hydrocephalus :

289. The following applies for  the temporal cone :

290. The following applies for  the lateral temporal herniation:

291. The following applies for  the intracranial cones:

292. Syndrome of the intracranial hypotension:

293. The following cardinal motor signs of the parkinson syndrome form the tetrade:

294. Non-motor signs of Parkinson syndrome include:

295. Parkinson syndrome is assessed as:

296. Dystonic syndrome is assessed as:

297. Parkinson syndrome can be caused by the following conditions:

298. Cerebellar syndrome is characterized by:

299. What is the cause of muscle tone decrease?

300. Muscle tone disorder – hypotonia is caused by:

301. Muscle tone disorder – rigidity - an increase of muscle tone during the rest, rigidity of muscles which resist within the full range of both active and passive movement and has a plastic character (cogwheel phenomenon, pipe-lead phenomenon) is present by(at):

302. Syringomyelic dissociation of sensitivity is typical with:

303. The following is typical for tabic dissociation of sensation:

304. Brown - Sequard syndrome / lesion of one half of the spinal cord/ is clinically typical with:

305. Anaesthesia dolorosa is typical for lesion of:

306. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, there is disturbance of sensation:

307. Movement of head with linear acceleration in vertical direction is an adequate stimulus for receptor of the cylindrical cells of:

308. The following does not belong to the symptoms of vestibular lesion: 

309. The following is typical for the peripheral vestibular syndrome:

310. The pontocerebellar angle syndrome is characterized by:

311. In the peripheral vestibular ataxia, the direction of upright posture titubations and gait direction deviation: 

312. Sudden appearance of rotation vertigo with ataxia and falls during gait and posture to one side with nausea and serious vomitus and unilateral tinnitus with rapid improvement after treatment is typical for:

313. In the case of the oculomotor nerve palsy:

314. Internal ophthalmoplegia: 

315. External ophthalmoplegia: 

316. Parinaud syndrome:

317. Horizontal gaze paralysis:

318. Claude-Bernard-Horner´s syndrome:

319. Abducent nerve palsy: 

320. In the case of retrochiasmatic lesions (Gratioletti radiation, primary visual cortex):

321. Corneal reflex:

322. Facial nerve lower motor neuron palsy:

323. Facial nerve upper motor neuron palsy:

324. Pseudobulbar palsy:

325. Bulbar palsy:

326. In the case of sella tumours:

327. Optic nerve atrophy:

328. The dysfuntion of extapyramidal system and its circuits:

329. As a consequence of the basal ganglia disorders:

330. Muscle tone:

331. Damage to the extrapyramidal system influences the muscle tone in the way: 

332. Which of the following statements about the extrapyramidal system is correct?

333. The damage to the extrapyramidal system can lead to: 

334. Dystonia:

335. Ballismus:

336. Atetosis:

337. Parkinsonism includes the following cardinal signs: 

338. The following do not belng to cardinal signs of the Parkinson´s disease do not include: 

339. Bradykinesia: 

340. Chorea:

341. Rigidity:

342. Increase in muscle tone:

343. Muscle tone is:

344. Tremor:

345. Parkinsonian tremor:

346. Loss of stability and balance (postural instability):

347. Bradykinesia: 

348. The following is characteristic for the Parkinson´s disease:

349. Impaired consciousness is being quantified and scored using

350. In a patient with coma we do investigate

351. In a patient with coma we do not investigate

352. In a patient with coma we do not investigate

353. When we investigate speech and language we

354. A patient who responds only to strong painful stimuli is 

355. Positive Romberg sign in ataxia:

356. Negative Romberg sign in ataxia:

357. Ataxia in a cerebellar lesion:

358. Which is true for ataxia in a vestibular lesion:

359. Which is true for ataxia caused by a lesion of dorsal spinal columns:

360. Which is true for the evaluation of posture:

361. Which is true for the evaluation of ambulation: 

362. Chvostek sign examination:

363. Babinski sign (correct statement):

364. Spastic pyramidal signs:

365. Paretic pyramidal signs (weakness):

366. Patient cannot show his teeth, purse the lips to right and cannot close the right eye:

367. Axial reflexes:

368. For taste examination we usually use:

369. Elementar postural reflexes:

370. Medical Research Council (MRC) Scale for Testing Muscle Strength. (MRC 0-5) and Tendon Reflex Grading Scale (0-5):

371. Abdominal cutaneous reflexes (upper, middle, lower):

372. Vestibular syndrome examination:

373. Nystagmus examination:

374. Oculocephalic reflex:

375. Caloric examination of the vestibular system:

376. Cilio-spinal reflex:

377. Right side positive Hautant's test (deviation):

378. Glasgow coma scale in an unconscious patient:

379. Decerebrate rigidity:

380. Which is TRUE about the bicipital reflex:

381. Which is TRUE about the tricipital reflex:

382. The signs and symptoms of an ulnar nerve lesion are:

383. The signs and symptoms of a median nerve lesion are:

384. Which is TRUE about the styloradial reflex:

385. Which is TRUE about the radial nerve:

386. The signs and symptoms of a C6 root lesion (C6 radiculopathy) are:

387. The signs and symptoms of a C7 root lesion (C7 radiculopathy) are:

388. The signs and symptoms of a C8 root lesion (C8 radiculopathy) are:

389. The signs and symptoms of a C5 root lesion (C5 radiculopathy) are:

390. Which is TRUE about the femoral nerve:

391. Which is TRUE about the ischiadic nerve:

392. Which is TRUE about the peroneal nerve:

393. Which is TRUE about the tibial nerve:

394. Which is TRUE about the patellar reflex (jerk):

395. Which is TRUE about the Achilles tendon reflex: 

396. The signs and symptoms of a L4 root lesion (L4 radiculopathy) are:

397. The signs and symptoms of a L5 root lesion (L5 radiculopathy) are:

398. The signs and symptoms of a S1 root lesion (S1 radiculopathy) are:

399. Which is TRUE about the cauda equina syndrome:

400. The following functions are tested in Glasgow Coma Scale :

401. Muscles used to test the first sacral (S1) myotome are:

402. Muscles used to test the fifth lumbar (L5) myotome are:

403. The following statements about normal cerebrospinal fluid are true:

404. Dysdiadochokinesia is present in the lesion of:

405. Sensory neglect is most likely to occur in a:

406. Which type of visual deficit produces the lesion of chiasma opticum:

407. Signs of the abducent nerve lesion are:

408. When investigating the olfactory nerve:

409. Masseter reflex:

410. Photoreaction:

411. Corneal reflex:

412. The meningeal sign, when elevation of extended lower limbs, in supine patient, causes lower back pain and flexion of the knees.

413. The meningeal sign, also known as a sign of "tripod", is called:

414. The meningeal sign, in which passive flexion of the head forward causes flexion of the lower limbs in the knees and hip joints, is called:

415. The following belong to the meningeal signs:

416. The meningeal syndrome typically manifests with:

417. The meningeal syndrome is a set of symptoms resulting from the irritation of the meninges through:

418. In severe cases, the meningeal syndrome manifests a relieving position:

419. The meningeal sign, when a sitting patient needs support of at least one arm behind the back, is called:

420. The meningeal sign, that is examined as a bilateral form of Lasségue maneuver, is called:

421. Which statement about the cerebellum is correct?

422. Which statement about the cerebellum is correct?

423. Which statement about the cerebellum is correct?

424. Which statement about the cerebellar syndrome is correct?

425. Which statement about the examination of the cerebellum is correct?:

426. 68 years old patient with sudden onset of right side hypermetry. Patient does not complain for nausea or vomiting and does not have ataxia of the gait and posture

427. 33 years old female with slow gradual onset of rotational nystagmus over three weeks with different intensity in each eye. Ataxia of the posture and gait is mild and hypermetria is not present 

428. Syndrome of dementia is usually characterized by:

429. Syndrome of dementia is usually presented by:

430. Myotatic – stretch reflexes on the upper extremities pass through the following spinal levels C5-C8:

431. Pyramidal signs – deficit phenomenon on the upper extremities:

432. Pyramidal signs - released phenomenon on the upper extremities: 

433. Abdominal skin-muscle reflexes and cremasteric reflex /mark the correct spinal segment through which pass the listed reflexes/: 

434. Muscle stretch reflexes on the lower extremities /mark the correct spinal segment through which pass the listed  reflexes/: 

435. Pyramidal signs - release phenomenon on the lower extremities - flexion of toes:

436. Posture I: 

437. Posture II: 

438. Posture III: 

439. Gait III. with closed eyes aggravates in case of:

440. Contra-indications of stance and gait examinations: 

441. During calorimetry, irrigation of one ear with cold water / 37 °C / a typical normal reaction is:

442. What is the name of the test for cerebellar ataxia?

 

 

 

 

 

Multiple choice tests questions - special neurology

 

1. Epilepsy:

2. Epileptic seizure:

3. Which of the following belong to the seizure disorders:

4. Somatic causes of the non-epileptic paroxysmal states include:

5. Seizure disorders:

6. Acute symptomatic epileptic seizures:

7. Which of the following belong to the generalized epileptic seizures:

8. Partial epileptic seizures:

9. Simple partial epileptic seizures:

10. Complex partial epileptic seizures:

11. Tonic-clonic epileptic seizure:

12. Absence seizures:

13. Neuroimaging in the diagnosis of epilepsy is the method:

14. From the diagnostic point of view the patients with epilepsy require:

15. Epilepsy is:

16. Etiology of epilepsy:

17. Which of the following belong to the antiepileptic drugs:

18. Which of the following belong to the second generation antiepileptics:

19. Therapy of epilepsy:

20. Antiepileptic regimen involves:

21. The etiologic agent of neuroborreliosis is:

22. Which of the following is relevant for the diagnosis neuroborreliosis: 

23. Early localized Lyme disease can manifest by:

24. Early disseminated Lyme disease can manifest by:

25. Late disseminated Lyme disease can manifest by:

26. Symptoms and signs of neuroborreliosis:

27. Treatment of the early stage of borreliosis:

28. Neuroborreliosis treatment:

29. The most frequent etiological agent of neuroborreliosis in Europe is:

30. Diagnosis of borreliosis is supported or confirmed by:

31. Which of the following statements about the Lyme Borreliosis are TRUE?

32. Which of the following statements statement about the anatomy of the spine and spinal cord is CORRECT:

33. A complete lesion, affecting all parts of the spinal cord at a single level will give rise to the following sings of neural tract impairment:

34. A lesion of the spinal cord can give rise to following segmental signs:

35. The possible disorders associated with pathology of the nerve roots and spinal nerves include:

36. The typical clinical features of a prolapsed intervertebral disc, regardless of the level, include:

37. Which statement about Dementia in Parkinson’s disease is CORRECT?

38. Which statement about Alzheimer’s disease is CORRECT?

39. Which statement about cognitive deficit in multiple sclerosis is CORRECT? 

40. Which statement about vascular dementia is CORRECT? 

41. Vascular dementia is a heterogeneous clinical entity. Based on the etiology and clinical picture we recognize the following subunits:

42. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by:

43. Alzheimer’s disease is usually presented by:

44. Signs of the Bell´s palsy (peripheral lesion of the N VII):

45. Treatment of the Bell´s palsy (peripheral lesion of the N VII):

46. Treatment of tetanic syndrome:

47. Tetania:

48. Most frequent symptoms and signs of multiple sclerosis:

49. Which laboratory methods are used in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis:

50. Findings in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in patients with multiple sclerosis:

51. Magnetic Resonance Imaging findings in multiple sclerosis:

52. What is the typical course of multiple sclerosis?

53. Kurtzke Expanded Disability Status Scale – which EDSS step statements are CORRECT:

54. Prognosis of multiple sclerosis:

55. Medication used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis:

56. Medication used in the treatment of the attack of multiple sclerosis:

57. Which statement about multiple sclerosis is CORRECT:

58. Typical symptoms of migraine include:

59. Examples of migraine prodromes:

60. Examples of migraine aura:

61. Cluster headache symptoms:

62. Tension headache:

63. Headache – when to seek emergency help:

64. Neuropathic pain, which statement is CORRECT:

65. Neuropathic pain – treatment options:

66. What causes the neuropathic pain?

67. Which of the following symptoms may be presented in extrapyramidal diseases?

68. What cardinal signs are characteristic for the Parkinson’s disease?

69. Which of the following diseases has extrapyramidal syndromes in its clinical manifestation?

70. Which statement about the Parkinson’s disease (PD) is CORRECT?

71. What are the treatment possibilities in the Parkinson’s disease?

72. Which of following diseases has parkinsonian syndrome in its clinical manifestation?

73. Which of the following statements about Parkinson plus syndromes are TRUE?

74. Which statement about tremor is CORRECT?

75. Which statement about essential tremor is CORRECT?

76. Which of the following statements about dystonia are TRUE?

77. Which of the following statements about myoclonus are TRUE?

78. Which of the following diseases may manifest with extrapyramidal syndrome?

79. Diabetes mellitus mainly affects the structures of:

80. The most frequent complication of diabetes mellitus is:

81. Which of the following does not belong to the complications diabetes mellitus:

82. Diabetic amyotrophy is manifested by:

83. Which of the following statements about the hypoglycaemic coma is TRUE?

84. Which of the following statements about the hyperglycaemic coma is TRUE?

85. Chronic alcohol abuse:

86. The neurological clinical manifestations of the chronic alcohol abuse include:

87. One of the reasons of Old Roman Empire decline is considered to be the chronic intoxication of its inhabitants with:

88. CO intoxication:

89. Organic solvents:

90. Influence of the psychotropic drugs:

91. Benzodiazepines and barbiturates:

92. Which of the following statements about the psychostimulants (amphetamine and its derivates) is valid?

93. Malignant neuroleptic syndrome:

94. The indirect neurological complications of drug abuse include:

95. Hemorrhagic stroke includes: 

96. The three most common causes of the intracerebral hemorrhage are:

97. Risk factors for an intracerebral hemorrhage include:

98. The signs and symptoms of the intracerebral hemorrhage include:

99. An intracerebral hemorrhage can be differentiated from an ischemic stroke by:

100. In the differential diagnosis of intracerebral hemorrhage the blood samples may be tested for:

101. The most frequent localization of the hypertension-associated intracerebral hemorrhage are: 

102. The most frequent localization of the amyloid angiopathy-associated intracerebral hemorrhage are: 

103. Multiple intracerebral hemorrhages may develop due to:

104. Angiography is indicated in the diagnosis of an intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH): 

105. Complications of an intracerebral hemorrhage include:

106. Surgical therapy in the work-up of an intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) is indicated: 

107. The treatment in oral anticoagulation-associated intracerebral hemorrhage includes: 

108. The treatment of brain edema in an intracerebral hemorrhage includes:

109. Basic treatment measures in an intracerebral hemorrhage include:

110. The diagnosis of a cerebral venous thrombosis is verified by: 

111. The causes of a cerebral venous thrombosis include: 

112. The treatment of a cerebral venous thrombosis includes:

113.  An extension of the intracerebral hemorrhage in to the ventricles: 

114. Which of the following may cause an intracerebral hemorrhage:

115. Which of the following statement about a non-traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage is TRUE:

116. Sudden severe headache, accompanied by nausea, vomiting and development of the meningeal syndrome evokes:

117. The possibility of a subarachnoid bleeding should be considered when … occurs:

118. The diagnosis of a subarachnoid haemorrhage requires the following management: 

119. The correct procedure for the diagnosis of a spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage is:

120. Possible complications of a spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage are:

121. The recurrence of a subarachnoid haemorrhage may be presented by:

122. The occurrence of arteriospasms may be presented by:

123. The presence of arteriospasms can be monitored using:

124. In the case of an aneurysm detection in a spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage it is necessary:

125. Systemic intravenous thrombolytic treatment may be used:

126.  Systemic intravenous thrombolytic treatment is contraindicated:

127. The following medicaments are used in the secondary prevention of the ischemic strokes:

128. Which is TRUE about a transitory ischemic attack (TIA):

129. The clinical picture of a transitory ischemic attack in the territory of middle cerebral artery includes a transient:

130. The clinical picture of a transitory ischemic attack in the territory of anterior cerebral artery includes a transient:

131. The clinical picture of a transitory ischemic attack in the territory of posterior cerebral artery includes a transient:

132. Which is TRUE for a transitory ischemic attack (TIA):

133. Medication used in the prevention and treatment of the transitory ischemic attack include:

134. The symptoms and signs of one-sided subdural hematoma are: 

135. The localisation and origin of the hemorrhage in a subdural hematoma:

136. The localisation and origin of the hemorrhage in an epidural hematoma:

137. Clinical picture of the epidural hematoma:

138. Treatment of the acute subdural hematoma:

139. Treatment of the epidural hematoma:

140. The signs and symptoms of a posttraumatic stress disorder iclude:

141. Clinical picture of coma vigile (the apallic syndrome, persistent vegetative state):

142. Clinical picture of the close brain injury (commotio cerebri):

143. The signs of the brain edema (brain swelling):

144. The orotracheal intubation in neurology is indicated: 

145. Conditions requiring neurocritical care include:

146. Therapy of a status epilepticus includes:

147. Therapy of a brain edema includes: 

148. A patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage may suffer the following complications:

149. Which is TRUE about the trigeminal neuralgia:

150. Which is TRUE about the idiopathic trigeminal neuralgia:

151. Secondary trigeminal neuralgia may occur in:

152. Treatment of the idiopathic trigeminal neuralgia involves:

153. The following drugs are usually used for treatment of the idiopathic trigeminal neuralgia:

154. Which is TRUE about the amyotrophic lateral sclerosis:

155. Which is TRUE about the motor neuron disease:

156.  Which is TRUE about the hereditary spastic paralysis:

157. Which is TRUE about the spinal muscular atrophy:

158. Which is TRUE about the myasthenia gravis:

159. Which of the following agents are used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis:

160. Which is TRUE about the Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS):

161. Botulism:

162. Insomnia : 

163. Sleep apnoea: 

164. Obstructive sleep apnoea: 

165. Central sleep apnoea: 

166. Narkolepsy: 

167. Parasomnias: 

168. Parasomnias associated with REM sleep: 

169. Which of the following statements about the disorders of circadian rhythm is CORRECT:  

170. Shy-Drager’s syndrome: 

171. Acute autonomous neuropathy: 

172. Disorders of vegetative nervous system are typically presented by problems with: 

173. Familiar dysautonomy (Riley):  

174. Congenital sensory neuropathy with anhidrosis:   

175. Horner’s syndrome:

176. Which of the following statements about the sympathetic nervous system is CORRECT:   

177. Which of the following statements about the parasympathetic nervous system is CORRECT:

178. Vegetative nervous system and central nervous system:

179. The most common cause of neuropathy are: 

180. Which of the following drugs can cause a peripheral neuropathy:

181. Peripheral neuropathy may be presented by one or more of the following symptoms:

182. Which of the following substances can cause a peripheral neuropathy:

183. Which of the following disorders are associated with a peripheral neuropathy:

184. The most common type and clinical picture of diabetic neuropathy are:

185. Which of the following treatment options has evidence supporting its use in the Guillain-Barre syndrome? 

186. Which of the following treatment options is used for treatment of the chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP )?

187. Which of the following hereditary neuropathies do not have autosomal dominant inheritance?

188. Which of the following findings are present in the Guillain-Barre syndrome?

189. Which of the following presentations of nervous system involvement can occur with diabetes?

190. Which of the following conditions can present as mononeuritis multiplex?

191. The features of the acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (Guillain-Barre syndrome) are:

192. The features of the alcoholic neuropathy are:

193. Electromyographic findings in a normal subject are:

194. Electromyographic findings in a myogenic lesion are:

195. Electromyographic findings in a neurogenic lesion are:

196. Peripheral neuropathy symptoms are often worse:

197. The characteristic features of radial nerve lesion are:

198. The characteristic features of ulnar nerve lesion are:

199. The characteristic features of peroneal nerve lesion are:

200. The characteristic features of  posterior tibial nerve lesion (tarsal tunnel syndrome) are:

201. The characteristic features of carpal tunnel syndrome are:

202. Wallerian degeneration is:

203. The following statements about neuropraxia are TRUE:

204. The following statements about axonotmesis are TRUE:

205. The characteristic features of upper brachial plexus lesion (Erb’s palsy) are:

206. The characteristic features of lower brachial plexus lesion (Klumpke’s palsy) are:

207. The characteristic electrodiagnostic features of an axonal neuropathy are:

208. The characteristic electrodiagnostic features of a demyelinating neuropathy are:

209. Myopathic syndrome is characterized by:

210. Which of the following we use in diagnostics of muscular diseases:

211. Diseases of the muscle include:

212. Muscular dystrophies:

213. Duchenne muscular dystrophy:

214. Which of the following statements about the genetics of Duchenne muscular dystrophy are CORRECT:

215. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is manifested by:

216. Which of the following statements about the diagnostics of Duchenne and Becker’s muscular dystrophies is CORRECT:

217. Which of the following statements about the therapy and prevention of Duchenne and Becker’s muscular dystrophies is CORRECT:

218. Which of the following statements about the facio-scapulo-humeral dystrophy is CORRECT:

219. Which of the following statements about the ocular myopathies is CORRECT:

220. Myotonic dystrophy is characterized by:

221. Which of the following statements about the myopathies is CORRECT:

222. Which of the following statements about the inflammatory myopathies is CORRECT:

223. Limb girdle weakness can be caused by:

224. Which of the following statements about the myopathies is CORRECT:

225. Which of the following disorders should be considered in the differential diagnostics of diffuse muscle weakness:

226. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a sex-linked disorder involving the gene responsible for the synthesis of:

227. Intellectual function in children with Becker’s muscular dystrophy is usually:

228. Which statement about the Frontotemporal lobar degeneration is CORRECT?

229. The Frontotemporal lobar degeneration comprises three following clinical entities:

230. Which statement about the Progressive non-fluent aphasia is CORRECT?

231. Which statement about the Lewy body dementia is CORRECT?:

232. Which statement about the Semantic dementia is CORRECT?

233. Which statement about the Frontotemporal dementia is CORRECT? 

234. Which statement about the Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is CORRECT?

235. Which of the following statements about meningitis purulenta is CORRECT?

236. Objective signs of the meningitis purulenta include:

237. The bacterial spectrum of infectious agents causing meningitis purulenta differs in newborns, children and adults and the most frequent are the following:

238. Clinical course and progression of the meningitis purulenta:

239. Meningococcal meningitis /Neisseria meningitis/:

240. Which of the following statements about meningitis purulenta caused by Haemophilus influenzae is CORRECT?

241. Which of the following statements about meningitis purulenta caused by Pneumoccocus pneumonia is CORRECT?

242. Diagnosis of meningitis purulenta includes:

243. Which of the following statements about the treatment of purulent meningitis is CORRECT?

244. Which of the following statements about a brain abscess is CORRECT?

245. The clinical symptomatology of a brain abscess:

246. Which of the following agents can cause an aseptic meningitis?

247. Clinical signs of a viral meningitis include:

248. Diagnostic work-up of a viral meningitis consists of:

249. Which of the following statements about a tick-born encephalitis is TRUE?

250. Which of the following statements about the Herpes simplex encephalitis caused by Herpes simplex type I is TRUE?

251. Which of the following statements about Herpes zoster is TRUE?

252. Which of the following statements about the Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is TRUE?

253. A symptom complex associated with AIDS includes:

254. The direct neurotropic effect of AIDS may cause the following neurological complications:

255. Which of the following statements about AIDS and its treatment is TRUE?

256. Which of the following statements Creutzfeld – Jacob disease is TRUE? 

257. Which of the following statements about tetanus is TRUE?

258. Which of the following statements about botulism is TRUE?

259. Which of the following statements about syphilis and neurosyphilis (lues and neurolues) is TRUE?

260. Which of the following statements about the diagnosis and treatment of neurolues (neurosyphilis) is TRUE?

261. Which of the following statements about the progressive paralysis and Tabes dorsalis is TRUE?

262. Which of the following statements about TBC meningitis is TRUE?

263. The common tumours of the childhood include:

264. The common clinical manifestations of the brain tumours include:

265. Which of the following statements about astroglial tumours is TRUE?

266. Which of the following statements about glioblastoma multiforme is TRUE?

267. Glioblastoma multiforme:

268. Which of the following statements about anaplastic astrocytoma is TRUE?

269. Which of the following statements about oligodendroglial tumours is TRUE?

270. Which of the following statements about embryonic tumours is TRUE?

271. Which of the following statements about medulloblastoma is TRUE?

272. Which of the following statements about extraaxial brain tumours is TRUE?

273. Which of the following statements about schwannoma (neurinoma) is TRUE?

274. Which of the following statements about meningeomas is TRUE?

275. Which of the following statements about meningeomas is TRUE?

276. Which of the following statements about the malignant CNS lymphomas is TRUE?

277. Tumours of the sellar region:

278. A typical pituitary adenoma:

279. Which of the following statements about the pituitary adenomas is TRUE?

280. A craniopharyngeoma:

281. Which of the following statements about a craniopharyngeoma is TRUE?

282. Which of the following statements about tumours of spinal cord and spinal channel is TRUE?

283. Tumours of the spinal cord and spinal channel:

284. Which of the following statements about the paraneoplastic neurological syndromes (PaNS) is TRUE?

285. Metastatic affection of the neural system:

286. Meningeal carcinomatosis:

287. Huntington’s disease (HD):

288. Which of the following statements about chorea Huntington (HD) is TRUE?

289. Which of the following statements about Tourette syndrome (TS) is TRUE?

290. Involvement of nervous system in porphyries:

291. A deficit of cyanocobalamine (vitamin B12) most frequently causes:

292. Encephalopathy in hepatic insufficiency is manifested by:

293. Asterixis:

294. Decompensation of the hepatic encephalopathy can be caused by:

295. Renal or uremic encephalopathy:

296. Thiamin deficiency:

297. Which of the following statements about Wernicke’s encephalopathy is TRUE?

298. Which of the following statements about neurofibromatosis type I. is TRUE?

299. Which of the following statements about neurofibromatosis type 2 is TRUE?

300. Which of the following statements about tuberose sclerosis is TRUE?

301. To the main clinical features of tuberose sclerosis belong:

302. The intracranial pathology of tuberose sclerosis includes:

303. To the neurocutaneous syndromes do not belong:

304. Which of the following statements about ataxia teleangiectasia is TRUE?

305. The vascular neurocutaneous syndromes include:

306. CT imaging is indicated:

307. CT imaging has a high sensitivity for:

308. Advantages of CT imaging include:

309. Non-contrast CT imaging has a low sensitivity for:

310. Contrast-enhanced CT imaging depicts:

311. The following statement concerning contrast application in CT imaging is TRUE:

312. Acute hemorrhage in CT imaging is:  

313. Acute ischemic stroke in CT imaging is:

314. CT imaging in neurology is used for the differential diagnosis of:

315. CT angiography:

316. MR imaging is indicated in:

317. MR imaging is contraindicated:

318. MR imaging has following advantages:

319. MR imaging is more sensitive than CT in:

320. Usual MR sequences in neuroradiology include:

321. Contrast enhances MR imaging is indicated in:

322. MR imaging plays a central role in the diagnostics of:  

323. The following statement concerning MR-angiography is TRUE:

324. Hyperacute ischemic stroke in MR-imaging

325. Hyperacute brain hemorrhage in MR-imaging: 

326. Ultrasound examination in neurology is used in the evaluation of:

327. Ultrasound examination is based on:

328. Ultrasound examination of the extracranial cerebral arteries involves examination of :

329. Ultrasound examination of the intracranial cerebral arteries involves examination of :

330. The ultrasound evaluation of the extracranial carotid and vertebral circulation is based on:

331. The ultrasound evaluation of the intracranial circulation is based on:

332. The indications of ultrasound examination of cerebral circulation are:

333. Transcranial doppler examination is used in the evaluation of:

334. The cause of microemboli in intracranium may be:

335. Advantages of ultrasound examination of cerebral circulation:

336. The angiographic examination methods of cerebral circulation include:

337. In general, the best resolution technique in the examination of cerebral circulation is:

338. Complications of digital subtraction angiography are:

339. Indications for angiographic examination of the cerebral circulation are:

340. Contraindications of angiographic examinations are:

341. Which statement about Positron emission tomography (PET) is CORRECT?

342. Which statement about positron emission tomography (PET) is CORRECT?

343. Planar X-ray in neurology:

344. Computerized tomography in neurology:

345. In normal CT scan of the brain:

346. In the case of the stroke:

347. CT scan in cranial trauma:

348. Hydrocephalus in CT scan:

349. Meningeoma in the CT:

350. Schwannoma in the CT scan:

351. Posttraumatic haematoma in the CT scan:

352. Malignant tumours in neuroimaging:

353. Subarachnoidal bleeding in CT:

354. In the case of lumbar disc herniation:

355. Cervical myelopathy:

356. Spinal channel tumours:

357. Fractures of vertebral bodies:

358. CT angiography:

359. MR angiography:

360. Brain metastases:

361. Abscess of the brain:

362. Neuroimaging of multiple sclerosis:

363. Osteolytic metastases of the skull:

364. Thrombosis of cerebral arteries of circle of Willis:

365. Meningeoma in imaging methods:

366. Which of these statements about imaging of arteriovenous malformation is true?

367. Which of these statements about cerebral sinus thrombosis is true?

368. Aneurysms of cerebral arteries – neuroimaging:

369. Neuroimaging of dementia of Alzheimer type:

370. Which of these statements about malignant glioma- glioblastoma imaging is true?

371. Schwannoma in MRI imaging:

372. Pituitary tumours in neuroimaging:

373. Tumours in the spinal channel:

374. Which of the following statements about the imaging of spinal cord lesions is TRUE?

375. Fractures of the vertebral bodies:

376. Planar X-ray of the spine:

377. Osteolytic lesions of the skull or spine:

378. Hypertonic bleeding in neuroimaging:

379. Syringomyelia in neuroimaging:

380. CT angiography:

381. MR angiography:

382. Digital subtraction angiography:

383. The daily amount of cerebrospinal fluid is?

384. To the most important functions of the cerebrospinal fluid belong:

385. In cerebrospinal fluids are (under normal conditions):

386. The cerebrospinal fluid is present:

387. Subarachnoidal space is:

388. Xantochromy of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is:

389. Cerebrospinal fluid can be taken by:

390. Hypoglykorhachia (decreased level of the glucose in cerebrospinal fluid) is in the cases of: 

391. To the complication of lumbar puncture belong?

392. In subarachnoidal bleeding, in cerebrospinal fluid can be present:

393. The first lumbar punction was performed by:

394. Oligoclonal production of immunoglobulins in CSF is present in the following cases:

395. The indications of the evaluation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are cases of:

396. To the contraindications of performing the lumbar punction belong:

397. The main evaluated parameters of cerebrospinal fluid include?

398. What is Electroencephalography (EEG)?

399. Technical parameters of EEG recordings are?

400. Which from these statements for polarity in EEG and normal EEG findings in adults are correct?

401. Activating procedures in EEG:

402. Which of the following statements about EEG is CORRECT?

403. To the specific EEG patterns in patients with generalised epilepsy belong:

404. Which of the following statements about non-specific EEG patterns in EEG of patients with generalised epilepsy is CORRECT:

405. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

406. Which of the following statements about periodic discharges (PD) in EEG is CORRECT:

407. EEG examination is primary indicated:

408. Electroencephalography is:

409. Standardly used activating methods in EEG:

410. Specific epileptiform EEG patterns comprise:

411. Electroencephalography:

412. Which statements referring to EEG are valid? :

413. Electrophysiological methods are:

414. The following statements referring to EEG are valid:

415. Vertex sharp waves in EEG:

416. Which is CORRECT for EEG:

417. Frequency sectors in EEG are: 

418. Pathological elements in EEG are:

419. Activation methods in EEG:

420. Which is CORRECT for polysomnography: 

421. Long time EEG monitoring:

422. Pattern reversal visual evoked potentials (PR VEP) are considered to be abnormal in the multiple sclerosis patient if:

423. Auditory brainstem evoked potentials (BAEP, ABEP, ABR) can confirm auditory disturbances (impaired hearing) if: 

424. Auditory brainstem evoked potentials (BAEP, ABEP, ABR) can confirm brainstem lesion if:

425. Somatosensory evoked potentials elicited by stimulation of nervus medianus (MN SEP) can be affected by brainstem lesion, if:

426. Somatosensory evoked potentials elicited by stimulation of nervus tibialis posterior (PTN SEP) can be affected by brain hemispheral lesion if:

427. Which of the following statements about evoked potentials is TRUE?

428. Which of the following statements about VEP PR (visual pattern reversal evoked potential) is TRUE?

429. Which of the following statements about BAEP (brainstem auditory evoked potential) is TRUE?

430. Which of the following statements about SSEP (somatosensory evoked potentials) is TRUE?

431. Which of the following statements about evoked ERP (event related evoked potentials) is TRUE?

432. Which of the following statements about MEP (motor evoked potential) is TRUE?

433. Which of the following statements about VEP (visual evoked potential) is TRUE?

434. Wave P300 ERP is used mainly in diagnosis of:

435. CNV (contingent negative variation):

436. In diagnosis of multiple sclerosis the highest diagnostic income represents the usage of:

437. Which statement about EMG is CORRECT?

438. Which statement about EMG is CORRECT?

439. Which statement about nerve conduction studies (NCS) is CORRECT:

440. Which of the following pathological potentials can be recorded during spontaneous muscle activity in needle EMG?

441. During voluntary muscle activity (contraction) in needle EMG:

442. Which statement about posturography is TRUE?

443. Posturography:

444. Posturography is indicated in the following disorders:

445. Psychological diagnostic is used the following cases:

446. The clinical psychological methods include:

447. The clinical screening tests include:

448. The scales enabling the evaluation of cognitive functions include:

Questions for the Exam of Neurology

Literature

Mumenthaler M.: Neurology

Gdovinová Z., Szilasiová J.: Textbook of general neurology. Košice : Aprilla Ltd. for Hanzluvka Books, 2009. 189 s. ISBN 9788089346158 (brož.). Tichý J. a kol.: Neurologie. Praha : Karolinum, 2001. 

Ropper AH et al: Adams&Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9th ed, The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc, 2009, 

Bradley WQ et al: Neurology in Clinical Practice, 5th ed, Butterworth-Heinemann, 2007 

Biller J et al: The Neurological Examination, 6th ed., The McGraw-Hill Companies Inc, 2011,

Benarroch E et al: Mayo Clinic Medical Neurosciences, 5th ed., Mayo Clinic Scientific Press 2008